CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Question Paper 2026 with Solution

CBSE has officially released the Class 10 Social Science 087 Sample Question Paper 2026 with Solution, based on the latest pattern applicable from the academic session 2025–26. The new format is designed to assess students more holistically through a mix of objective, short, long, and case-based questions.

The paper is divided into four sections – History, Geography, Political Science, and Economics—with each section carrying 20 marks. The question types include MCQs, Very Short Answer (VSA) questions of 2 marks, Short Answer (SA) questions of 3 marks, Long Answer (LA) questions of 5 marks, and Case-Based Questions (CBQs) worth 4 marks. Additionally, a map-based question is included (5 marks total) in History and Geography sections. Internal choices are given in selected questions for convenience.

This sample paper follows the updated assessment scheme introduced in 2024–25, which will continue in the current session. A separate question has also been provided for visually impaired students in place of map or image-based questions.

Why this Sample Paper is Useful:

Understand the latest structure and weightage of questions.
Practice the exact types of questions likely to appear in board exams.
Learn how to answer in the right format and word limit.
Ideal resource to prepare for CBSE Pre-Boards and Annual Board Examinations.

Teachers can also use this as a model paper to prepare classroom tests and guide students better for CBSE Board Exams.

cbse-class-10-social-science-087-sqp-2026-with-solution

CBSE Class 10 Social Science (087)
Sample Question Paper 2025-26
with Marking Scheme / Solution – PDF Download

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions: Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :
(i) This question paper contains 38 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question paper is divided into FOUR sections – A-History, B-Geography C- Political Science, and D- Economics.
(iii) Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
(iv) Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 40 words.
(v) Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 60 words.
(vi) Long answer type questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 120 words.
(vii) There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each. Answers to each question should not exceed 100 words.
(viii) The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and Q19. In Section B -Geography (3 marks)
(ix) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
(x) In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only.

SECTION – A
HISTORY (20 Marks)

1. Match the following and Choose the correct option:

	COLUMN I		COLUMN II
A	Frederic Sorrieu	1	Torch of enlightenments
B	Statue of Liberty	2	Shattered remains of absolutist Institutions
C	Foreground in front of the Statue of Liberty	3	Democratic and Social Republics
D	Sorrieu’s utopian vision.	4	French Artist

A) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
B) A-2, B-4, C-4, D-1
C) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
D) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-4

2. Identify and name the leader shown in the picture given below:

A. Lala Lajpat Rai
B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
C. Gopal Krishan Gokhale
D. Raja Rammohan Roy

3. Thousands of people fled Europe for America in the 19th century due to
A. Widespread poverty and deadly diseases
B. Frequent famines and poor living conditions
C. Continuous wars and political instability
D. Harsh climate and repeated natural disasters

4. Louise-Sebastien Mercier proclaimed “Tremble, therefore, tyrants of the world! Tremble before the virtual writer!” Who are referred to as the tyrants in this context?
A. Educated classes who wanted to change the society
B. Absolutist institutions like monarchy and church
C. Authors of the new books
D. Printing press

5 A. “The Silk route was a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural links between distant parts of the world.” Explain the statement with any two examples.
Ans: (i) Chinese pottery, textiles and spices from India and Southeast Asia also travelled the same route. In return, precious metals – gold and silver – flowed from Europe to Asia.
(ii) Trade and cultural exchange went hand in hand. Buddhism from India spread in several directions through intersecting points on the silk routes.

5 B. ‘Sometimes the new crops could make the difference between life and death.’. Explain the statement.
Ans: (i) Sometimes new crops like potatoes could make the difference between life and death. It was with the introduction of the humble potato that Europe’s poor began to eat well, eat better and live longer.
(ii) Ireland’s poor peasants became so dependent on potatoes that when the potato crop was destroyed by disease in the mid-1840s, hundreds of thousands of peasants died of starvation.

6 A. ‘A variety of cultural processes played an important role in developing a sense of nationalism in India’. Support the statement with suitable examples.
Ans: (i) Figure or Image – The identity of India came to be visually associated with the image of Bharat Mata. This image was created by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay. Rabindranath Tagore painted his famous image of Bharat Mata. In this painting, Bharat Mata is portrayed as an ascetic figure; she is calm, composed, divine and spiritual.
(ii) Songs – Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote ‘VandeMataram’ as a hymn to the motherland. It was included in his novel Anandmath and widely sung during the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal.
(iii) Folklore – Indian folklore was revived. In late-nineteenth-century India, nationalists began recording folk tales sung by bards and they toured villages to gather folk songs and legends. These tales gave a true picture of traditional culture. It helped to restore a sense of pride in our past. In Bengal, Rabindranath Tagore himself began collecting ballads, nursery rhymes and myths, and led the movement for folk revival. In Madras, Natesa Sastri published a massive four-volume collection of Tamil folk tales, The Folklore of Southern India.

6 B. Salt March ‘became an effective tool of resistance against colonialism.’ Justify the statement with suitable arguments.
Ans: (i) Salt became an effective tool of resistance against colonialism because of the following reasons: Gandhiji found in salt a powerful bond that would unite the nations as it – was consumed by all rich and poor alike.
(ii) Gandhiji’s letter to Viceroy Irwin stated eleven demands. Most of them were of general interest but the most stirring was to abolish the salt tax imposed by the colonial government.
(iii) People in different parts of the country broke salt law and manufactured salt and demonstrated in front of government salt factories.

7 A. ‘In Britain the formation of the nation-state was not the result of a sudden upheaval or revolution but was the result of a long-drawn-out process.’ Analyze this statement with suitable reasons.
Ans: (i) In Britain the formation of the nation-state was not the result of a sudden upheaval or revolution. The primary identities of the people who inhabited the British Isles were ethnic ones – such as English, Welsh, Scot or Irish.
(ii) The Act of Union (1707) between England and Scotland resulted in the formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’ meant that England was able to impose its influence on Scotland. Scotland’s distinctive culture and political institutions were systematically suppressed.
(iii) The Scottish Highlanders were forbidden to speak their Gaelic language or wear their national dress and large numbers were forcibly driven out of their homeland.
(iv) The English helped the Protestants of Ireland to establish their dominance over a largely Catholic country. Catholic revolts against British dominance were suppressed. Ireland was forcibly incorporated into the United Kingdom in 1801.
(v) The symbols of the new Britain – the British flag, the national anthem, the English language were actively promoted and the older nations survived only as subordinate partners in this union.

7 B. The Treaty of Vienna was drawn up in 1815 with the object of undoing most of the changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars.’ Highlight the significant provisions of this treaty.
Ans: (i) The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French Revolution, was restored to power, and France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon.
(ii) A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French expansion in future. Thus the kingdom of the Netherlands, which included Belgium, was set up in the north and Genoa was added to Piedmont in the south.
(iii) Prussia was given important new territories on its western frontiers, while Austria was given control of northern Italy.
(iv) The German confederation of 39 states that had been set up by Napoleon was left untouched. In the east, Russia was given part of Poland while Prussia was given a portion of Saxony.
(v) The main intention was to restore the monarchies that had been overthrown by Napoleon, and create a new conservative order in Europe.

8. Read the given text and answer the following questions:

Why Newspapers?

Krishnaji Trimbuck Ranade inhabitant of Poona intends to publish a Newspaper in the Marathi Language with a view of affording useful information on every topic of local interest. It will be open for free discussion on subjects of general utility, scientific investigation and the speculations connected with the antiquities, statistics, curiosities, history and geography of the country and of the Deccan especially… the patronage and support of all interested in the diffusion of knowledge and Welfare of the People is earnestly solicited. (Bombay Telegraph and Courier, 6 January 1849)

“The task of the native newspapers and political associations is identical to the role of the Opposition in the House of Commons in Parliament in England. That is to critically examine government policy to suggest improvements, by removing those parts that will not be to the benefit of the people, and also by ensuring speedy implementation.
These associations ought to carefully study the particular issues, gather diverse relevant information on the nation as well as on what are the possible and desirable improvements, and this will surely earn it considerable influence”. (Source: Native Opinion, 3 April 1870)

8.1. Explain the main reason for publishing newspapers by Krishna ji.
Ans: Krishnaji wanted to publish significant information about societal developments in the areas of politics, science, and other fields in order to inform the public.
8.2. How was the task of native newspaper and political association seen identical to the role of the opposition?
Ans: The media used to criticise and analyse government policies were local newspapers and political organisations. As a result, both of these served as the government’s opposition.
8.3. Analyze the reasons for the popularity of newspapers during the 19th century.
Ans: Reasons for popularity of newspapers during 19th century are:
i. The political developments in the country began to interest a sizable portion of society, and this information was skillfully presented in the newspapers.
ii. Newspapers started to serve as a source for societal advancements in social, cultural, and scientific.

MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTION (2 marks)

9. Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct names on the lines marked on the map.
A) The place where the Civil Disobedience Movement was launched.
B) The city where Indian National Congress session was held in September 1920.

SECTION B
GEOGRAPHY (20 marks)

10. What is essential for resource development to contribute to overall development?
A. The availability of resources alone is enough.
B. The presence of foreign invaders and their governance.
C. Technological development and institutional changes.
D. Only human resources can contribute to development.

11. Identify the appropriate option to fill in the empty boxes:
Classification of Soils

Alluvial	?	?
Ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, wheat and other cereal and pulse crops.	Ideal for growing cotton	suitable for crops like cashew nut.

A. Black soil, Red and Yellow soils
B. Laterite soil, Black soil
C. Red & Yellow soils & Black soil
D. Black soil & Laterite soil

12. A total of 628 tigers died in India during the past five years due to natural causes and other reasons, including poaching, according to government data. Meanwhile, 349 people were killed in tiger attacks during this period, with Maharashtra alone recording 200 deaths.
Which of the following is the most significant indirect consequence of poaching on the tiger population?
A. Reduction in the prey species, dwindling tiger’s food supply
B. Increase in human-wildlife conflicts in protected areas
C. Rise in the tiger population.
D. Decrease in tourism revenue in national parks

13. Based on the classification of forests, which of the following statements would most likely apply to states like Jammu and Kashmir, Andhra Pradesh, and Kerala?
A. These states mostly have forests managed as reserved or protected forests for conservation
B. They rely on unclassed forests and local community management for forest
conservation
C. They have forest resources and primarily focus on industrial development
D. There are no classified forests and forest management is entirely left to private ownership

14. Which one of the following states has made roof top water harvesting compulsory in India?
A. Haryana
B. Punjab
C. Assam
D. Tamil Nadu

15. Which of the following statements best evaluates the overall goal of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchaee Yojana?
A. Addressing the negative ecological effects of large dams by reducing water usage
B. To provide better irrigation systems and sustainable water conservation practices for farmers
C. Shifting farmers from traditional crops to more commercial, water-intensive crops
D. Preserve the natural river flow and prevent the fragmentation of aquatic ecosystems

16. Rice is grown as a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, but as a subsistence crop in Odisha. Using your understanding of geographical factors and economic practices, explain why rice cultivation differs in these regions.
Ans: Climate and Irrigation: In contrast, Odisha has a more monsoonal climate, and while rice is grown, the farming is often rainfed and primarily for local consumption. The lack of large-scale irrigation systems limits its commercialization.
Economic Factors (Market Access): In Punjab and Haryana, rice is grown for commercial purposes to meet national and international demand. The proximity to markets, government procurement systems, and well-developed transport networks enable these states to export surplus rice.
Farming Practices:
● In Punjab and Haryana, the use of modern farming techniques, machinery, and high-yielding varieties supports commercial rice cultivation.
● In Odisha, rice farming is more traditional and focused on family sustenance rather than large-scale production, which reflects the subsistence nature of cultivation.

17 A. Person P is willing to establish a mineral based industry. He has been advised to set up a bauxite industry in Odisha as a suitable way to make a profitable venture. Analyse the possible reasons behind the advice given to her.
Ans: Odisha was the largest bauxite producing state in India in 2016:
Panchpatmali deposits in Koraput district are the most important bauxite deposits in the state. Aluminium is an important metal because it combines the strength of metals such as iron. It is a good alternative to other metals due to its extreme lightness and also has good conductivity and great malleability.

17 B. ‘Coal is the most important and abundant fossil fuel in India.’ Justify the statement by evaluating the significant role it plays in the growth of the Indian economy in its different forms.
Ans: Significance:
> It is used for power generation,
> To supply energy to industry as well as for domestic needs.
Variety of coal types:
Coal, is found in a variety of forms depending on the degrees of compression and the depth and time of burial.
Anthracite – is the highest quality hard coal.
Peat – Decaying plants in swamps produce peat. Which has a low carbon and high moisture contents and low heating capacity.
Lignite – is a low grade brown coal, which is soft with high moisture content. The principal lignite reserves are in Neyveli in Tamil Nadu and are used for generation of electricity.
Bituminous coal – Coal that has been buried deep and subjected to increased temperatures. It is the most popular coal in commercial use. Metallurgical coal is high grade bituminous coal which has a special value for smelting iron in blast furnaces.

18. Read the given text and answer the following questions:

Global pollution is rising due to rapid economic growth, population increases, and insufficient environmental management. This poses serious health risks for people and ecosystems, particularly in low- and middle-income countries. Contributing to these challenges, the global economy relies on deeply intertwined supply chains, sustained by more than 100 billion tons of raw materials entering the system each year. Intensive material consumption depletes natural resources and causes negative environmental impacts at every stage of the product lifecycle. Global waste is expected to increase to 3.4 billion tons by 2050.
Pollution of all types hinders development outcomes. Exposure to air pollution, water pollution, and hazardous chemicals and wastes like mercury, lead and persistent organic pollutants (POPs) causes debilitating and fatal illnesses, creates harmful living conditions, and destroys ecosystems. Pollution undermines sustainable economic growth, exacerbates poverty and inequality in both urban and rural areas, and significantly contributes to climate change. Poor people, who cannot afford to protect themselves from the negative impacts of pollution, end up suffering the most.
Pollution is the largest environmental cause of disease and premature death. It is estimated to be several times more deaths than from AIDS, tuberculosis, and malaria combined. Global health crises, such as the COVID-19 pandemic, are reminders of the strong linkages between environment and health and of the need to address such linkages systematically.

18.1 Why do you think is global waste expected to increase by 2050?
Ans: Due to intensive material production and consumption.
18.2 How do manufacturing industries cause pollution of different types? Explain with examples.
Ans: Manufacturing industries are a major cause for:
(i) air pollution – Smoke is emitted by chemical and paper factories, brick kilns, refineries and smelting plants, and burning of fossil fuels in big and small factories that ignore pollution norms. Toxic gas leaks can be very hazardous with long-term effects.
(ii) Water pollution is caused by organic and inorganic industrial wastes and affluents discharged into rivers. The main culprits in this regard are paper, pulp, chemical, textile and dyeing, petroleum refineries, tanneries and electroplating industries that let out dyes, detergents, acids, salts and heavy metals like lead and mercury pesticides, fertilisers, synthetic chemicals with carbon, plastics and rubber, etc. into the water bodies.
18.3 Is it correct to consider pollution as a possible cause for worsening of the current global trends of poverty and inequality? Justify.
Ans: Poor people, cannot afford to protect themselves from the negative impacts of pollution, end up suffering the most. This also leads to social disparity/inequality due to the ill effects of poverty. (Can be explained with the help of an example)

MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTION (3 marks)

19. On the same outline map of India locate and label the following with suitable symbols:
(I) (p) The dam in the Sutlej-Beas river basin, which is being used both for hydel
power production and irrigation.

(q) The dam in the Mahanadi basin that integrates conservation of water with flood control.
(II) Any two of the following:
(i) A major sea port in West Bengal
(ii) An international airport in Tamil Nadu
(iii) An international airport in Punjab

SECTION C
POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 marks)

20. Which of the following statement(s) are true with respect to the ethnic composition of Belgium?
I. 59 percent of the total population of Belgium lives in the Wallonia region and speaks French.
II. 40 percent live in the Flemish region and speak Dutch.
III. One percent of the Belgians speak German.
IV. In the capital city Brussels, 80 percent people speak French while 20 per cent are Dutch speaking.
Choose the correct option:
A. I and II
B. III and IV
C. I, II and III
D. I and IV

21. The cartoon below depicts Germany’s government that was formed after the 2005 elections. It included the two major parties of the country, namely the Christian Democratic Union and the Social Democratic Party. The two parties are historically rivals to each other. Which of the following options best explains the cartoon?

A. Coalition Government
B. Two Party System
C. Democratic government
D. Bi-party system

22. Consider the following case and choose the correct option
Suppose the Government of India plans to issue new currency notes of different denominations in order to curb the influence of black money. The Government of one state is opposed to this policy of the Central Government. Can the state government stop the union government from implementing this policy?
A. Yes, because Currency is the subject of State List
B. No, because Currency is a subject of Union List
C. Yes, because the approval of both the governments is necessary to implement this change.
D. No, because any such change must be approved by the local government also.

23. Two statements are given as Assertion (A) and Reason(R). Study the statements carefully and identify the correct alternative:
ASSERTION (A): Exclusive attention to caste can produce negative results in democracy.
REASON (R): It can divert attention from other important issues thus leading to tensions, conflicts and even violence.
Choose the correct option:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

24. Highlight any two key features of federalism.
Ans: Features of federalism:
(i) There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government.
(ii) Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration.
(iii) The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in the constitution. So the existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed.
(iv) The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of government. Such changes require the consent of both the levels of government.

25. ‘Women in India face discrimination, disadvantages and oppression in many ways.’ Highlight any two aspects of life where you witness this inequality.
Ans: (i) Education – Literacy rate among women is only 54% as compared with 76% among men. Parents prefer to spend their resources for their sons’ education rather than daughters.
(ii) Low Proportion of women in highly paid and valued jobs – Women still have a small share in the highly paid jobs. Even if a woman works for more hours than a man, her work is not given importance. This results in low paid and low valued jobs for women.

26. ‘Democracy leads to peaceful and harmonious life among citizens in every sphere.’ Support this statement with suitable arguments.
Ans: (i) Democracies accommodate various social divisions. For example, Belgium has peacefully solved her ethnic problems and solved the differences.
(ii) All democracies usually develop a procedure to conduct competition, i.e. conduct elections, power-sharing, etc. This reduces the possibility of tensions, due to social divisions, turning violent or explosive.
(iii) Democracy teaches people to respect the differences and resolve conflicts among different groups peacefully. In non-democratic countries, rulers either turn a blind eye to or suppress internal differences. For example, Sri Lanka. The plus point in democratic regime is the ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts.

27 A. Political parties play a significant role in the effective working of a democracy.’ Explain.
Ans: Political parties play a significant role in the effective working of a democracy. To fill political offices and exercise political power, political parties are needed to perform a series of functions, which are the following:
(i) Parties provide people access to government machinery and welfare schemes. For an ordinary citizen it is easier to approach a local party leader than a government officer.
(ii) Parties contest elections. Elections are fought mainly among candidates put up by political parties. In India, top party leaders choose candidates for contesting elections.
(iii) Parties put forward different policies and programmes. Political parties in a democracy group together similar opinions, to provide a direction in which government policies can be formulated.
(iv) Parties make laws for a country. Laws are debated and passed in the legislature.
(v) Parties that lose elections play the role of the opposition. Opposition parties voice their views by criticizing the government for its failure or wrong policies.
(vi) Parties shape public opinion. They raise and highlight issues and resolve people’s problems. Many pressure groups are the extensions of political parties.

27B. ‘The challenge of dynastic succession is undoubtedly a major challenge for political parties in India.’ Analyse the statement’.
Ans: (i) Most political parties do not practice open and transparent procedures for their functioning. So there are very few ways for an ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party.
(ii) Those who happen to be the leaders are in a position of unfair advantage as they favour people close to them or even their family members.
(iii) In many parties in India, we see a trend of dynastic succession. The top positions are always controlled by members of a particular family, which is unfair to other members of the party, and bad for democracy.
(iv) This is so because people who do not have adequate experience or popular support come to occupy positions of power.
(v) More than loyalty to party principles and policies, personal loyalty to the leader becomes more important. This tendency is seen all over the world, even in older democracies.

28. Read the given text and answer the following questions:

Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the Sinhala community sought to secure dominance over government by virtue of their majority. As a result, the democratically elected government adopted a series of MAJORITARIAN measures to establish Sinhala supremacy. Over the years, it created feelings of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils. They felt that none of the major political parties led by the Buddhist Sinhala leaders was sensitive to their language and culture. As a result, the relations between the Sinhala and Tamil communities strained over time. On the other hand, the Belgian leaders took a different path. They recognised the existence of regional differences and cultural diversities. Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same country. Source-Adapted from Power Sharing,NCERT

28.1 State any two demands of Tamils in Sri Lanka.
Ans: (a) To recognise Tamil as official language
(b) Regional autonomy
(c) Equality of opportunities in securing education and jobs.
28.2 State the results of the Majoritarian Government in Sri Lanka.
Ans: The Majoritarian Government in Sri Lanka created a distrust between Tamils and Sinhala communities which resulted in civil war. As a result, thousands of people of both communities were killed and many families were forced to leave the country as refugees.
28.3 Explain any two provisions of the Belgian model of power sharing.
Ans: (i) The Constitution prescribed that the number of Dutch and French Any two speaking ministers shall be equal in the central government.
Some special laws require the support of majority of members from each linguistic group. Thus, no single community can make decisions unilaterally.
(ii) Many powers of the central government have been given to state governments of the two regions of the country. The state governments are not subordinate to the Central Government.

SECTION D
ECONOMICS (20 marks)

29. Underemployment is caused when:
A. More workers are employed than actually required
B. Fewer workers are employed than actually required
C. Workers are paid more than their actual output
D. Jobs are given only to highly educated workers

30. What can be inferred about the limitations of using per capita income (average income) to compare well-being across countries? Choose the correct option as the answer.
A. It shows how equally or unequally income is distributed among the people in a country
B. The only measure needed to understand a country’s development is Per capita income
C. It gives a basic idea of economic well-being but hides the income inequality
D. It only reflects the industrial growth of a country and does not consider other important factors

31. Which of the following examples best demonstrates how the tertiary sector supports both the primary and secondary sectors?
A. Farmers grow vegetables and sell them directly to consumers, with no transportation or storage involved
B. A factory makes shoes and uses raw materials like leather to create the product, relying on transport and retail stores to distribute the shoes
C. A bakery bakes bread and uses delivery services to send the bread to local shops for sale, without any direct involvement of raw materials
D. A company produces furniture from wood, but does not require any transport or retail services to sell the product

32. Which one of the following issues currency notes in India?
A. Finance Ministry
B. Reserve Bank of India
C. State Bank of India
D. Central Bank of India

33. Person Z tries to explain how the requirement of a double coincidence of wants in a barter system limits trade and exchange. Which of the following justification do you think will be used by him/her?
A. It makes trade more complicated, as each person must have what the other person wants, limiting the pool of potential trade partners
B. The barter system allows trade to be conducted more efficiently since both parties already know what they need from the transaction
C. It increases the number of exchanges because each person can trade for exactly what they want
D. The system creates value for goods by ensuring that both parties have a direct need for each other’s goods

34. Recognize and choose the option that correctly matches the effects and consequent outcomes of globalization.

Column A (Effects of globalisation)	Column B (Outcomes)
1.Increased foreign investment	i. Expansion of global markets and access to technology
2.Cultural exchange and awareness	ii. Loss of traditional jobs due to automation and cheaper labor elsewhere
3.Techonological exchange and awareness	iii. Spread of cultural practices, ideas, and values across borders
4.Growth of multinational corporations	iv. Large companies becoming dominant players in global markets

Choose the correct option:
A. 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv
B. 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii
C. 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-iii, 4-i
D. 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv

35. Evaluate the utility of public services in contributing to the overall well-being of individuals and society.
Ans: Healthcare and Public Health: Accessible and quality public healthcare, is fundamental for maintaining, a productive and healthy population. It reduces mortality rates, ensures the well-being of the workforce, and allows individuals to contribute meaningfully to the economy. Inadequate healthcare can result in a higher burden of disease, lower life expectancy, and economic inefficiencies.
Education and Skill Development: Public education systems are essential for providing equal learning opportunities to all citizens, regardless of socioeconomic status. A well-educated population leads to increased literacy rates, skill development, and innovation, all of which are crucial for economic growth, reducing inequality, and fostering social cohesion.

36. ‘Expanding access to loans in the formal sector is important, yet it is equally critical that these loans are accessible to all people for national development.’ Justify the statement.
Ans: > Higher cost of borrowing from informal sources means a larger part of the earnings of the borrowers is used to repay the loan. Hence, borrowers have less income left for themselves (as we saw for Shyamal in Sonpur).
> In certain cases, the high interest rate for borrowing can mean that the amount to be repaid is greater than the income of the borrower. -This could lead to increasing debt (as we saw for Rama in Sonpur) and debt trap.
> Also, people who might wish to start an enterprise by borrowing may not do so because of the high cost of borrowing.
> For these reasons, banks and cooperative societies need to lend more. This would lead to higher incomes and many people could then borrow cheaply for a variety of needs.
> They could grow crops, do business, set up small-scale industries etc. They could set up new industries or trade in goods. Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country’s development.

37. Highlight the significant three factors that have contributed to the growth of globalisation.
Ans: (i) The movements of goods and services,
(ii) Liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign investment policy
(iii) Information and Communication Technology
(iv) Transportation technology
(v) Movement of people between countries
(any 3 well explained)

38 A. A research student spoke with two people, M and N to learn about their work-related differences. On the basis of the interview conducted with both of them, the student concludes that while person M was working in an organized sector, person N was an employee of a workplace that was functioning in an unorganised way. Analyse the key differences between the two sectors that must have enabled the research student to come to this conclusion.
Ans: Working conditions of person M would have the following features:
Regular Employment: Workers have assured, regular work with fixed terms of employment.
Government Regulation: Enterprises are registered with the government and follow legal rules and regulations (e.g., Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act).
Security of Employment: Workers enjoy job security with clear working hours and benefits.
Overtime Compensation: If workers work beyond regular hours, they are paid overtime.
Employee Benefits: Workers receive benefits like paid leave, holidays, provident fund, gratuity, and medical benefits.
Safe Working Conditions: Employers are required to provide safe working environments (e.g., clean drinking water).
Retirement Benefits: Workers are entitled to pensions after retirement.
Formal Processes: The sector follows formal processes and procedures for employment.
Working conditions of person N would have the following features:
Irregular Employment: Jobs are low-paid and often irregular, with no guarantee of continuous work.
Lack of Government Regulation: The sector operates largely outside government control, with few or no legal protections.
No Employee Benefits: Workers do not receive benefits like paid leave, overtime pay, or medical benefits.
Job Insecurity: Employment is not secure; workers can be dismissed without notice or reason.
Seasonal Work: Employment is often dependent on seasons, and workers may be laid off during off-peak periods.
Informal Jobs: Many workers are self-employed, doing small jobs like street vending or repair work.
Dependence on Employer: Employment conditions are influenced by the employer’s whims and needs. No Legal Protections: There is little enforcement of rules or regulations related to working conditions or benefits.

38 B. Privatisation can have both positive and negative effects on the economy. Support the statement with argument.
Ans: Privatization: Positive Effects:
(i) Increased Efficiency and Productivity
(ii) Improved Quality of Services
(iii) Reduced Government Burden
Privatization: Negative Effects:
(i) Exclusion of Public Welfare – Profit being the only motive
(ii) Loss of Employment Security
(iii) Wide gap between rich and poor – due to inaccessibility of basic facilities
(iv) Lower government accountability
Any other relevant point(s)

Map for Q. no. 9 (Section A) & Q. no. 19 (Section B)

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