Prepare effectively for your CBSE board exams with the Class 10 Social Science 087 Previous Year Question Paper 2025. This resource is designed to help students understand the latest exam pattern, important topics, and commonly asked questions. By practicing the 2025 question paper along with detailed solutions and marking schemes, students can evaluate their preparation and improve their performance. It’s a valuable tool for both students and teachers to plan strategically and revise thoroughly. Download the PDF and start solving to boost your confidence and score better in the board exams.
Series EF5HG
Question Paper Code 32/5/2 Set 2
SOCIAL SCIENCE
(Session 2024-25)
Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :
(i) This question paper contains 37 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question paper is divided into SIX sections – Section A, B, C, D, E and F.
(iii) Section A – Question number 1 to 20 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Section B – Question number 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer type questions. Each question carries 2 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words.
(v) Section C – Question number 25 to 29 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries 3 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 60 words.
(vi) Section D – Question number 30 to 33 are Long Answer type questions. Each question carries 5 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 120 words.
(vii) Section E – Question number 34 to 36 are Case-based/Source-based questions with three sub-questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
(viii) Section F – Question number 37 is Map Skill based question with two parts – 37(a) from History (2 marks) and 37(b) Geography (3 marks). This question carries total 5 marks.
(ix) In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired Candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, Map etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually Impaired Candidates only.
SECTION – A
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (20X1=20 Marks)
1. With the help of following information identify the agricultural crop from the given options:
I. It requires more than 200 cm. rainfall and temperature above 25°C.
II. It is mainly used as raw material in industries.
III. It is primarily a crop of the equatorial region.
Option:
A) Cotton
B) Rubber
C) Groundnut
D) Mustard
2. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option:
| Column-I (Dam) | Column-II (River) |
| a. Sardar Sarovar | i. Mahanadi |
| b. Salal | ii. Chambal |
| c. Gandhi Sagar | iii. Narmada |
| d. Hirakud | iv. Chenab |
Options:
A) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
B) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
C) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
D) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
3. Choose the correct option to fill the blank.
An artificial lake built in the 11th century for water conservation is _____.
A) Sambhar Lake
B) Wular Lake
C) Bhopal Lake
D) Chilka Lake
4.Choose the correctly matched pair:
A) Corbett National Park – Himachal Pradesh
B) Sunderban National Park – Kerala
C) Bandhavgarh National Park – Rajasthan
D) Manas Tiger Reserve – Assam
5. Study the given table and answer the question that follows:
CRUDE OIL RESERVES
| Region/Country | Reserves (2017) (Thousand Million Barrels) | Number of Years Reserves will last |
|---|---|---|
| Middle East | 808 | 70 |
| United States of America | 50 | 10.5 |
| World Average | 1697 | 50.2 |
Read the following possible outcomes from the table and choose the correct option:
I. If crude oil continues to be extracted at the present pace, it would be exhausted in about 50 years.
II. In Middle Eastern Countries it may take longer than average of the world.
III. To ensure the availability of crude oil in future, its reuse and recycle policy should be adopted.
IV. In United States of America, Crude oil is likely to run out in just about 10 years.
Option:
A) Only I, III and IV are correct
B) Only I, II and III are correct
C) Only II, III and IV are correct
D) Only I, II and IV are correct
6. Identify the appropriate reason for the slow growth of the English Language Press during the 18th century from the following options:
A) Restriction of British government on the regional press
B) English Press worked on commercial perspectives
C) Increase in the demand for the regional press in the market
D) Reason and rationality were not prominent in press
7. In the early years of the 19th century the production of which of the following food items brought about a fundamental change in the lives of poor people in Europe?
A) Tomato
B) Potato
C) Soya
D) Groundnut
8. For which of the following markets were cotton and sugar primarily exported from America in the 18th Century?
A) For American Market
B) For European Market
C) For Asian Market
D) For Australian Market
9. Read the following facts related to ‘Napoleonic Code’ carefully and choose the correct option:
I. Abolition of privileges based on birth.
II. Establishing equality before the law.
III. Securing property rights.
IV. Imposing manorial dues on the peasants.
Options:
A) only I, II and III are correct
B) only II, III and IV are correct
C) only I, II and IV are correct
D) only I, III and IV are correct
10. Two Statements-I and II are given below. Read both the statements and choose the correct option.
Statement-I: In recent times technology in the areas of computer and internet has been changing rapidly.
Statement-II: Internet allows us to send instant electronic mail (e-mail) and talk (voice-mail) across the world at negligible costs.
Options:
A) Only I is false but II is true
B) Only I is true but II is false
C) Both I and II are true but II is not the correct explanation of I
D) Both I and II are true and II is the correct explanation of I
11. The problem of ‘Double Coincidence of Wants’ can be solved by which of the following?
A) By increasing the circulation of currency
B) By expanding the scope of markets
C) By creating awareness amongst people
D) By registering the buyer and seller
12. Shyamal is a small farmer. Shyamal has got his ‘Kisan Card’ made. He needs a loan to grow new crops. Which of the following means will be easy and beneficial for this?
A) Cooperative Bank
B) Agricultural Traders
C) Relatives
D) Friends
13. Look at the given picture and answer the question that follows:
The work being done in the picture falls in which sector of the economy?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
(D) Quaternary
Note: Following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of question no. 13:
The work done in the cotton textile industry falls under which sector of the economy?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary
14. Rakhi has done an economic survey of her area. The survey has revealed that people earn their livelihood by doing different jobs. The table prepared by Rakhi for this is given below. Study the table carefully and answer the question that follow:
| S.N. | Work | No. of People |
|---|---|---|
| 1. | Farmer working his fields | 250 |
| 2. | Teachers teaching in school | 10 |
| 3. | Handloom weavers in his/her house | 70 |
| 4. | Workers working in big factories | 140 |
| 5. | Employees working at a hospital in the area | 60 |
| Total | 530 |
How many people are working in the unorganised sector?
A) 380
B) 210
C) 320
D) 140
15. Which one of the following countries has a high ‘Human Development Index’ score?
A) Pakistan
B) Myanmar
C) India
D) Nepal
16. Which of the following statements are correct related to the role of political parties in India?
I. Play a decisive role in making laws for the country.
II. Making different interest groups in the country.
III. Play a role for shaping public opinion in the country.
IV. Pulling forward different policies and programmes before voters.
Options:
A) Only I, II and III are correct
B) Only I, III and IV are correct
C) Only II, III and IV are correct
D) Only I, II and IV are correct
17. Choose the correct option related to concurrent list of the Indian Constitution.
A) Marriage, Currency, Commerce
B) Defence, Banking, Education
C) Agriculture, Trade, Irrigation
D) Education, Forest, Marriage
18. Choose the correct option to fill the blank.
The Belgian leaders took a different path than Sri Lanka. They recognised the existence of regional differences and _____.
A) Religious diversities
B) Historical diversities
C) Cultural diversities
D) Administrative diversities
19. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option:
| Column-I (Atomic Power Plants) | Column-II (State) |
| a. Kakrapara | i. Rajasthan |
| b. Rawat Bhata | ii. Karnataka |
| c. Kaiga | iii. Maharashtra |
| d. Tarapur | iv. Gujarat |
Option:
A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
B) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
C) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
D) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
20. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Certain minerals may occur as alluvial deposits in sands of valley floors and the base of hills.
Reason (R): These are usually minerals, that are not corroded by water.
Options:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is true but (R) is false
D) (A) is false but (R) is true
SECTION – B
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4X2=8 Marks)
21. How did liberalization promote the process of globalization in India? Explain.
Ans: (i) Barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment were removed to a large extent.
(ii) The goods could now be imported and exported easily.
(iii) Foreign companies could now setup factories and offices in India.
(iv) With liberalization of trade, businesses are allowed to make decisions freely about what they wish to import or export.
(v) Government has created Special Economic Zones (SEZs) to promote and attract foreign investment.
(vi) MNCs have increased their investments in India.
(vii) Globalisation has enabled some large Indian companies to emerge as multinationals.
22. Describe two main characteristics of ‘Alluvial Soil’.
Ans: (i) These have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems– the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra.
(ii) The alluvial soil consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay.
(iii) As we move inlands towards the river valleys, soil particles appear somewhat bigger in size.
(iv) In the upper reaches of the river valley i.e. near the place of the break of slope, the soils are coarse, commonly found in piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai.
(v) According to their age alluvial soils can be classified as old alluvial (Bangar) and new alluvial (Khadar).
(vi) The bangar soil has higher concentration of kanker nodules than the Khadar. It has more fine particles and is more fertile than the bangar.
(vii) Mostly these soils contain adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric acid and lime, ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, wheat and other cereal and pulse crops.
(viii) Due to its high fertility, regions of alluvial soils are intensively cultivated and densely populated.
23. Suggest any two measures to prevent violence against women.
Ans: (i) Increasing the literacy rates of everyone in the country, especially women, will help improve the treatment of women in society.
(ii) Promoting legal awareness among women about existing laws to protect them from domestic violence and other types of exploitation.
(iii) Strengthening the laws to prevent domestic and workplace violence.
(iv) Increase in political representation.
24. (a) How did ‘salt’ become a powerful weapon to unite the country in the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement’? Explain any two causes.
Ans: (i) The Civil Disobedience Movement began with the breaking of the salt law.
(ii) Salt was something consumed by the rich and the poor alike.
(iii) It was one of the most essential items of food.
(iv) The tax on salt and the government monopoly over its production revealed the most oppressive face of British rule.
OR
(b) How did the colonial government suppress the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement’? Explain.
Ans: (i) The colonial government began arresting the Congress leaders one by one.
(ii) This led to violent clashes in many places.
(iii) Abdul Ghaffar Khan, a devout disciple of Mahatma Gandhi, was arrested in April 1930.
(iv) Angry crowds demonstrated in the streets of Peshawar, facing armoured cars and police firing.
(v) Many people were killed.
(vi) A month later, Mahatma Gandhi himself was arrested.
(vii) Industrial workers in Sholapur attacked police posts, municipal buildings, lawcourts and railway stations – all structures that symbolised British rule.
(viii) A frightened government responded with a policy of brutal repression.
(ix) Peaceful satyagrahis were attacked, women and children were beaten, and many were arrested.
SECTION – C
(Short Answer Type Questions) (5×3 = 15)
25. Explain three major challenges before Political Parties in India.
Ans: (i) The first challenge is lack of internal democracy within parties.
(ii) The concentration of power in the hands of one or few leaders.
(iii) Parties do not keep membership registers, do not hold organizational meetings, and do not conduct internal elections regularly.
(iv) The challenge of dynastic succession is commonly faced by political parties.
(v) Most political parties do not practice open and transparent procedures for their functioning.
(vi) The growing role of money and muscle power in parties during elections is another challenge.
(vii) Parties are focused only on winning elections, they tend to use short-cuts to win elections.
(viii) They tend to nominate those candidates who have or can raise lots of money.
(ix) Rich people and companies who give funds to the parties tend to have influence on the policies and decisions of the party.
(x) In some cases, parties support criminals who can win elections.
(xi) Often parties do not seem to offer a meaningful choice to the voters.
26. Why are formal sources more beneficial than informal sources of credit in India? Explain by giving any three arguments.
Ans: (i) Formal sources offer loan at comparatively low rate of interest than the informal sources of credit.
(ii) They are supervised by the Reserve Bank of India whereas there is no supervisory body to keep a check on the informal sources of credit.
(iii) Collateral is required to borrow money from the formal sources of credit whereas there is no need of collateral in the informal sources of credit.
(iv) In urban areas, the formal source is the main source of credit while in rural areas people usually borrow from the informal sources of credit.
(v) The process of lending is long and complicated in the formal sources whereas it is easy to borrow from the informal source of credit.
(vi) The formal sources of credit do not use unfair means to get their money back while the lender in the informal sources of credit might use unfair means to recover the loan.
(vii) The examples of formal sources of credit are banks, cooperatives, etc. while the informal sources can be moneylenders, agricultural traders, friends, family, relatives, etc.
27. “In India, workers in the organised sector enjoy security of employment.” Examine the statement by giving appropriate arguments.
Ans: (i) The workers in the organized sector are given an appointment letter stating all the terms and conditions of work.
(ii) In the organized sector workers cannot be removed from the job without any reason.
(iii) The organised sectors are registered by the government and have to follow its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as the Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act, Payment of Gratuity Act, Shops and Establishments Act etc.
(iv) The workers get paid holidays in the organized sector.
28. Analyse the vertical division of power in India.
Ans: (i) The division of powers involving higher and lower levels of government is called vertical division of power.
(ii) Power can be shared among governments at different levels – a general government for the entire country and governments at the provincial or regional level- state and local governments.
(iii) A general government for the entire country is usually called federal government.
(iv) In India, we refer to it as the Central or Union Government.
(v) The governments at the provincial or regional level are called by different names in different countries like state government in India.
(vi) The same principle can be extended to levels of government lower than the state government, such as the municipality and panchayat.
(vii) The constitution clearly lays down the powers of different levels of government.
(viii) This is called federal division of power.
29. (a) Analyse three main impacts of Non-Cooperation Movement on the economic front.
Ans: (i) Foreign goods were boycotted.
(ii) Liquor shops were picketed.
(iii) Foreign cloth was burnt in huge bonfires.
(iv) The import of foreign cloth halved.
(v) In many places merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade.
(vi) Production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up.
OR
(b) Why did the Non-Cooperation Movement start slowing down in the cities? Analyse three causes.
Ans: (i) Khadi cloth was often more expensive than mass produced mill cloth and poor people could not afford to buy it.
(ii) The boycott of British institutions posed a problem.
(iii) For the movement to be successful, alternative Indian institutions had to be set up so that they could be used in place of the British ones.
(iv) These were slow to come up.
(v) Students and teachers began trickling back to government schools and lawyers joined back work in government courts.
SECTION – D
(Long Answer Type Questions) (4×5 = 20)
30. (a) How did the tension in the Balkans region in 1871 become the major cause of the First World War? Explain.
Ans: (i) The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was the area called the Balkans.
(ii) The Balkans was a region of geographical and ethnic variation comprising modern-day Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, Macedonia, Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro whose inhabitants were broadly known as the Slavs.
(iii) A large part of the Balkans was under the control of the Ottoman Empire.
(iv) The spread of the ideas of romantic nationalism in the Balkans together with the disintegration of the Ottoman Empire made this region very explosive.
(v) All through the nineteenth century the Ottoman Empire had sought to strengthen itself through modernisation and internal reforms but with very little success.
(vi) One by one, its European subject nationalities broke away from its control and declared independence.
(vii) The Balkan people based their claims for independence or political rights on nationality.
(viii) They used history to prove that they had once been independent but had subsequently been subjugated by foreign powers.
(ix) Hence the rebellious nationalities in the Balkans thought of their struggles as attempts to win back their long-lost independence.
(x) As the different Slavic nationalities struggled to define their identity and independence, the Balkan area became an area of intense conflict.
(xi) The Balkan states were fiercely jealous of each other.
(xii) Each of them hoped to gain more territory at the expense of the others.
(xiii) Matters were further complicated because the Balkans also became the scene of big power rivalry.
(xiv) During this period, there was intense rivalry among the European powers over trade and colonies as well as naval and military might.
(xv) These rivalries were very evident in the way the Balkan problem unfolded.
(xvi) Each power – Russia, Germany, England, Austro-Hungary – wanting to get hold of other powers over the Balkans, and extending its own control over the area.
(xvii) This led to a series of wars in the region and finally the First World War.
OR
(b) Explain the programme for a unified Italian republic put forward by the Giuseppe Mazzini in the decade of 1830.
Ans: (i) An Italian revolutionary Giuseppe Mazzini, born in Genoa in 1805, became a member of the secret society of the Carbonari.
(ii) During the 1830s, he had sought to put together a coherent programme for a unitary Italian Republic.
(iii) He was sent into exile in 1831 for attempting a revolution in Liguria.
(iv) He subsequently founded two more underground societies, first, Young Italy in Marseilles, and then, Young Europe in Berne.
(v) Mazzini believed that God had intended nations to be the natural units of mankind. So, Italy could not continue to be a patchwork of small states and kingdoms.
(vi) It had to be forged into a single unified republic within a wider alliance of nations.
(vii) This unification alone could be the basis of Italian liberty.
(viii) Mazzini’s relentless opposition to monarchy and his vision of democratic republics frightened the conservatives.
(ix) Metternich described him as ‘the most dangerous enemy of our social order’.
(x) The failure of revolutionary uprisings both in 1831 and 1848 meant that the mantle now fell on Sardinia-Piedmont under its ruler King Victor Emmanuel II to unify the Italian states through war.
31. (a) Analyse the social and economic goals of development.
Ans: Social Goals: (i) Quality education and skill development for all.
(ii) Accessible and affordable healthcare for everyone.
(iii) Women empowerment through equal opportunities and leadership roles.
(iv) Ensuring dignity, equity, and social justice for all individuals.
(v) Promoting social harmony in a diverse society.
(vi) Strengthening coordination and cooperation between majority and minority communities.
Economic Goals: (i) Increasing per capita income to improve the standard of living.
(ii) Enhancing sectoral development for balanced economic growth.
(iii) Driving industrial growth to boost employment and innovation.
(iv) Strengthening infrastructure to support economic expansion.
(v) Modernizing agriculture for higher productivity and sustainability.
(vi) Promoting renewable energy.
(vii) Encouraging self-reliance through local manufacturing.
(viii) Ensuring sustainable economic growth with environmental responsibility.
(ix) Expanding global trade.
OR
(b) Why is the question of sustainability of development becoming challenging in the present times? Analyse the appropriate reasons.
Ans: (i) Sustainable development refers to meeting the needs of the present without compromising the needs of the future generations.
(ii) With growing population and growing demands for resources sustainability is becoming challenging in the present time.
(iii) Consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national or state boundaries. Sustainability is a global issue and requires global co-operation.
(iv) Promoting sustainable industrialization can ensure resource efficiency and long-term economic growth.
(v) Eco-friendly technologies drive economic growth while protecting the environment. More government policy support can help ensure sustainability.
(vi) Lifestyle changes are leading to overconsumption. Public awareness and responsible consumption can contribute to longterm sustainability.
(vii) Advancing alternative energy like solar and wind power reduces dependence on fossil fuels.
(viii) Strengthening environmental policies and regulations helps control pollution and preserve ecosystems.
(ix) Encouraging afforestation and biodiversity conservation supports ecological balance.
(x) Investing in sustainable agriculture ensures food security while conserving natural resources.
(xi) Water conservation initiatives and efficient irrigation techniques enhance water security.
32. (a) Explain the role of democracy in reducing economic inequalities in India.
Ans: (i) Democracies are based on political equality. All individuals have equal weight in electing representatives.
(ii) Democracy discourages discrimination on the basis of economic status, language, religion etc.
(iii) Democratic government puts forward schemes to eradicate poverty.
(iv) Democracy strengthens the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated groups for equal status and equal opportunity.
(v) Democratic governments make special provisions like reservation in educational institutions and government jobs for socially and economically weaker sections.
(vi) Democratic governments initiate employment generation programmes.
(vii) Democratic government tries to distribute wealth equally among different strata of society.
(viii) Democratic governments launch different programmes for the deprived sections of society to bring them at par with the better off section.
OR
(b) Explain the role of democracy in establishing the dignity of citizens.
Ans: (i) Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting dignity and freedom of the individual.
(ii) Every individual wants to receive respect from fellow beings.
(iii) Often conflicts arise among individuals because some feel that they are not treated with due respect.
(iv) Democracies throughout the world have recognised this and provide mechanism to resolve it.
(v) This has been achieved in various degrees in various democracies.
(vi) Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated caste/gender for equal status and equal opportunities.
33. (a) Study the given flow chart and answer the question that follows:
Explain the added value product in the textile industry on the bases of above flowchart.
Ans: (i) Cotton is harvested from cotton plants and processed to remove seeds and impurities. The raw fibre obtained is the initial stage of value addition.
(ii) The raw cotton fibre is spun into yarns through various spinning techniques. It enhances the usability of cotton by making it suitable for weaving or knitting.
(iii) The spun yarn is woven or knitted to create fabric. This step transforms the material into a more functional form, adding value by making it suitable for further processing.
(iv) The fabric undergoes dyeing, printing, and finishing processes to improve its aesthetic appeal, durability, and texture. This increases the fabric’s market value and makes it ready for garment production.
(v) The finished fabric is cut and stitched into garments such as shirts, dresses, or jeans making it ready for consumers.
(vi) Cotton industry, by creating demands supports many other industries, such as chemicals and dyes.
OR
(b) Study the given flowchart and answer the question that follows:
Explain the steel manufacturing process on the bases of the above flowchart.
Ans: (i) Raw materials like iron ore, coal, and limestone are transported to the steel plant. (Example: Iron ore from mines in India (like Odisha or Jharkhand) is transported to steel plants).
(ii) The raw materials are fed into a blast furnace, where they are melted at high temperatures. (Example: In steel plants, coke is used as fuel to melt iron ore).
(iii) The molten iron extracted from the blast furnace is called pig iron, which is high in carbon content and not yet steel. (Example: Pig iron is used for refining steel).
(iv) The pig iron is processed in steel-making furnaces to reduce impurities and adjust its composition. (Example: Companies produce different grades of steel for various industrial uses).
(v) The purified steel is then shaped into desired forms like sheets, rods, or beams through rolling, forging, or casting. (Example: Steel is used to manufacture construction materials, automobile parts, etc.).
SECTION – E
(Case-based/Source-based Questions) (3×4 = 12)
34. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:
State Reorganisation Commission
“The report of the States Reorganisation Commission (SRC), was implemented on November 1, 1956. This, in its own time and own way, has also transformed the political and institutional life of the nation. Gandhi and other leaders promised their followers that when freedom came, the new nation would be based on a new set of provinces, these based on the principle of language. However, when India was finally free in 1947, it was also divided…
Far from undermining Indian unity, linguistic states have helped strengthen it. It has proved to be perfectly consistent to be Kannadiga and Indian, Bengali and Indian, Tamil and Indian, Gujarati and Indian. To be sure, these states based on language sometimes quarrel with one another.
(34.1) What promise did Gandhiji make to his followers?
Ans: The new nation would be based on a new set of provinces.
OR These provinces would be reorganised on the principle of language.
(34.2) How did language strengthen the unity of India?
Ans: Creation of linguistic states has strengthened the nation.
OR The formation of linguistic states has made the country more united.
OR It also made administration easier.
(34.3) Mention the names of major language of Kerala and Andhra Pradesh states.
Ans: (i) Kerala – Malayalam (ii) Andhra Pradesh – Telugu
35. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:
Primitive Subsistence Farming
It is a ‘slash and burn’ agriculture. Farmers clear a patch of land and produce cereals and other food crops to sustain their family. When the soil fertility decreases, the farmers shift and clear a fresh patch of land for cultivation. This type of shifting allows Nature to replenish the fertility of the soil through natural processes; land productivity in this type of agriculture is low as the farmer does not use fertilisers or other modern inputs. It is known by different names in different parts of the country.
It is jhumming in north-eastern states like Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland; Pamlou in Manipur, Dipa in Bastar district of Chhattisgarh, and in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
(35.1) ‘Slash and Burn’ system of agriculture comes under which type of farming?
Ans: Primitive Subsistence Farming
(35.2) Why is productivity low in ‘Slash and Burn’ system?
Ans: Land productivity in this type of agriculture is low as the farmer does not use fertilisers or other modern inputs.
OR This system uses traditional farming methods.
(35.3) Describe any two features of ‘Slash and Burn’ system of agriculture.
Ans: (i) It is practiced on small patches of land with the help of primitive tools.
(ii) This type of farming depends upon monsoon and natural fertility of the soil.
OR (iii) This type of shifting allows nature to replenish the fertility of the soil through natural processes.
(iv) It has different name in different parts of the world.
36. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
Pages of Gutenberg’s Bible, the first printed book in Europe.
Gutenberg printed about 180 copies, of which no more than 50 have survived.
Look at these pages of Gutenberg’s Bible carefully. They were not just products of new technology. The text was printed in the new Gutenberg press with metal type, but the borders were carefully designed, painted and illuminated by hand by artists. No two copies were the same. Every page of each copy was different. Even when two copies look similar, a careful comparison will reveal differences. Elites everywhere preferred this lack of uniformity: what they possessed then could be claimed as unique, for no one else owned a copy that was exactly the same.
In the text you will notice the use of colour within the letters in various places. This had two functions: it added colour to the page, and highlighted all the holy words to emphasise their significance. But the colour on every page of the text was added by hand. Gutenberg printed the text in black, leaving spaces where the colour could be filled in later.
(36.1) Mention the contribution of Gutenberg in the field of printing.
Ans: Johann Gutenberg created the first mechanical printing press in 1430s.
OR This brought about the print revolution – shift from hand printing to mechanical printing in the world.
(36.2) How were the books borders painted and illuminated?
Ans: The borders were carefully designed, painted and illuminated by hand by artists.
(36.3) Describe any two benefits of colouring in the letters.
Ans: (i) It added colour to the page, and highlighted all the holy words to emphasise their significance.
(ii) The colour on every page of the text was added by hand.
OR Gutenberg printed the text in black, leaving spaces where the colour could be filled in later.
SECTION – F
(Map Skill Based Questions) (2+3 = 5)
37. (a) Two places ‘A’ and ‘B’ have been marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify them with the help of following information and write their names on the lines drawn near them:
A. The place where the session of Indian National Congress was held.
Ans: Calcutta/Kolkata
B. The place where Mahatma Gandhi started Satyagraha for indigo peasants.
Ans: Champaran (Bihar)
Note:
The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Question No. 37(a).
37. (a) (i) Name the place where session of Indian National Congress held in December, 1920. – Nagpur
(ii) Name the place where Mahatma Gandhi started Satyagraha for indigo peasants. – Champaran (Bihar)
37. (b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols:
(i) Leading state in production of rice – West Bengal
(ii) Coal-mines located in Tamil Nadu – Neyveli
(iii) Major sea port located in Karnataka – New Mangalore
(iv) Oil field located in Maharashtra – Mumbai High/ Bassien
Note:
The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Question No. 37(b).
Attempt any three questions:
37. (b) (i) Name the leading state in production of rice. – West Bengal
(ii) Name the place where coal-mines are located in Tamil Nadu. – Neyveli
(iii) Name the place where major sea port is located in Karnataka. – New Mangalore
(iv) Name the oil field located in Maharashtra. – Mumbai High/ Bassien